Is this doctor right?


Discuss

I think they would think of that. They probably have to define “successful.” They probably define it as >50%.

I’m just pulling this out of my ass. I have no real/educated answer.

Of course she’s right. That’s why the FDA only considered data through March when the efficacy was still 94%. They just pretended like all the data between then and now doesn’t exist when they issued the approval.