Question regarding No Contests

Why is it a NC with an illegal knee, but when Jones' downward elbow it's a loss? Phone Post

Weird.

Isnt it a NC when a cut occurs that must end the fight? Was it the cut on Pearson? He was otherwise fit to continue.

Maybe it was due to the cut. I think Buffer said stoppage due to an illegal strike. Honestly, I'm not sure. Phone Post

I think it was the cut, which was also questionable as it wasnt near the eyes but "I'm not a doctor."

its like when royce roided vs saku

its still listed as a win

wtf?

I believe it's a no contest b/c the referee deemed the knee an accidental illegal strike whereas ref in Jones fight called it an intentional illegal strike? Phone Post 3.0

Chris - I believe it's a no contest b/c the referee deemed the knee an accidental illegal strike whereas ref in Jones fight called it an intentional illegal strike? Phone Post 3.0
Yeah that's right.

The ref. has the discretion to determine whether a fight ending foul is intentional or unintentional.

So an intentional fight ending foul like Jones/Hamil was a DQ win for Hamil.

Then you have Pearson/Guillard which was ended by an unintentional foul, so it is considered a no contest. Phone Post 3.0

Jones threw the illegal blows intentionally. Melvin did not Phone Post 3.0

Chris - I believe it's a no contest b/c the referee deemed the knee an accidental illegal strike whereas ref in Jones fight called it an intentional illegal strike? Phone Post 3.0

Thank you, Chris. That makes sense. Phone Post